AIBE 2024 Solve Guide: Q1–25 with Explanations

AIBE 19 -2024 Solve Guide: Q1–25 with Explanations

AIBE 2024 Solve Guide

Here are the first 25 questions exactly as provided, with full options, answers and explanations.

AIBE 19 -2024 Solve Guide

✅ Q1.

Which section of BNSS mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each district and police station to provide information about arrested individuals to the general public?
(A) 35
(B) 37
(C) 45
(D) 25
Answer: (B) 37
Explanation: BNSS 2023 § 37 provides for the appointment of a designated police officer to give information on arrests.

✅ Q2.

Which section of BNSS introduces provisions for identifying, attaching and forfeiting the property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?
(A) 76
(B) 84
(C) 86
(D) 74
Answer: (C) 86
Explanation: BNSS § 86 deals with the attachment and forfeiture of property of a proclaimed offender located abroad.

✅ Q3.

Which section of BNSS places restrictions on adjournment of trials ensuring expeditious resolution of cases?
(A) 246
(B) 346
(C) 356
(D) 146
Answer: (C) 356
Explanation: BNSS § 356 limits adjournments to ensure speedy trials.

✅ Q4.

A suit is pending in District Court A, but one of the parties seeks its transfer to District Court B, claiming bias. Who has the authority to decide the transfer?
(A) The High Court or Supreme Court
(B) The Civil Judge in District Court B
(C) A committee of local advocates
(D) District Court A
Answer: (A) The High Court or Supreme Court
Explanation: Transfer between district courts is ordered by the High Court/Supreme Court under CPC § 24 & 25.

✅ Q5.

Maya files a suit in Court A for recovery of money. The defendant seeks to add a third party as a necessary defendant. Which CPC principle applies?
(A) Order 7 Rule 11 — Rejection of plaint
(B) Order 5 — Service of summons
(C) Order 6 Rule 1 — Amendment of pleadings
(D) Order 1 Rule 10 — Joinder of parties
Answer: (D) Order 1 Rule 10
Explanation: Order 1 Rule 10 CPC deals with the joinder of necessary or proper parties.

✅ Q6.

Which section of CPC allows for appeal from original decrees?
(A) Section 100
(B) Section 115
(C) Section 104
(D) Section 96
Answer: (D) Section 96
Explanation: Section 96 CPC provides for an appeal from an original decree.

✅ Q7.

Under CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement?
(A) 60 days
(B) 120 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 30 days
Answer: (B) 120 days
Explanation: Order VIII Rule 1 CPC allows a maximum of 120 days for filing a written statement.

✅ Q8.

Which section of CPC exempts the President of India and Governors from personal appearance in court?
(A) Section 133
(B) Section 128
(C) Section 130
(D) Section 132
Answer: (D) Section 132
Explanation: Section 132 CPC grants exemption from personal appearance to certain persons.

✅ Q9.

What is the term used for a court’s power to transfer a case from one court to another?
(A) Reference
(B) Review
(C) Transfer of suits
(D) Res judicata
Answer: (C) Transfer of suits
Explanation: The power is referred to as “Transfer of suits” under CPC §§ 22–25.

✅ Q10.

Under which Order of CPC is the procedure for summary suits provided?
(A) Order XXXVII
(B) Order X
(C) Order XXXVI
(D) Order XXXV
Answer: (A) Order XXXVII
Explanation: Order XXXVII CPC contains the summary procedure for certain types of suits.

✅ Q11.

Which section mandates State Government to prepare and notify a witness protection scheme?
(A) 198
(B) 298
(C) 98
(D) 89
Answer: (B) 298
Explanation: BNSS § 298 mandates the State Government to prepare a Witness Protection Scheme.

✅ Q12.

Which section of CPC provides for interpleader suits?
(A) Section 89
(B) Section 92
(C) Section 86
(D) Section 88
Answer: (D) Section 88
Explanation: Section 88 CPC provides for interpleader suits.

✅ Q13.

Which section of CPC provides for payment of compensatory costs?
(A) Section 35A
(B) Section 35B
(C) Section 36
(D) Section 35
Answer: (A) Section 35A
Explanation: Section 35-A CPC provides for compensatory costs for false or vexatious claims.

✅ Q14.

Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not in Section 24 of the Evidence Act?
(A) Coercion
(B) Threat
(C) Promise
(D) Inducement
Answer: (B) Threat
Explanation: BSA § 22 adds the word “Threat”, which was absent in the old Evidence Act § 24.

✅ Q15.

Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in which section of BSA 2023?
(A) Section 13
(B) Section 14
(C) Section 15
(D) Section 12
Answer: (B) Section 14
Explanation: Section 14 BSA 2023 deals with the existence of a course of business when it is relevant.

✅ Q16.

In a criminal trial, a stolen laptop with fingerprints is recovered from Rajesh. How should this evidence be treated under BSA 2023?
(A) Circumstantial evidence considered with others but not conclusive
(B) Inadmissible without warrant
(C) Must be verified by two experts
(D) Conclusive proof of guilt
Answer: (A)
Explanation: It is circumstantial evidence, which is relevant but not conclusive proof of guilt (§4 & §7 BSA).

✅ Q17.

Where a document is executed in several parts like print, photo, or digital record, BSA 2023 classifies each part as—
(A) Secondary evidence
(B) Scientific evidence
(C) Circumstantial evidence
(D) Primary evidence
Answer: (D) Primary evidence
Explanation: BSA §57 states that each part of a multi-part document is primary evidence.

✅ Q18.

Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require communication between Ministers and the President to be produced?
(A) 165
(B) 268
(C) 168
(D) 65
Answer: (C) 168
Explanation: Section 168 BSA 2023 grants privilege to such communications.

✅ Q19.

According to Section 46 of BSA, when is character evidence relevant in civil cases?
(A) Only when related to other relevant facts
(B) Never
(C) Only in criminal cases
(D) Always
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 46 states character evidence is relevant only when connected to other facts.

✅ Q20.

Which section of CPC deals with the principle of “res judicata”?
(A) Section 10
(B) Section 12
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 11
Answer: (D) Section 11
Explanation: Section 11 CPC enshrines res judicata.

✅ Q21.

Which section of BNSS provides for the right of a victim to appeal against acquittal?
(A) Section 407
(B) Section 372
(C) Section 374
(D) Section 390
Answer: (B) Section 372
Explanation: Section 372 BNSS grants the victim’s right to appeal.

✅ Q22.

BNSS introduces e-FIR filing under which section?
(A) 154
(B) 173
(C) 173A
(D) 180
Answer: (C) 173A
Explanation: Section 173-A permits electronic filing of FIR.

✅ Q23.

Statement of accused is recorded under which section of BNSS?
(A) 318
(B) 313
(C) 316
(D) 320
Answer: (B) 313
Explanation: Section 313 BNSS is for recording accused’s statement.

✅ Q24.

Which provision mandates no detention beyond 24 hours without Magistrate’s authority?
(A) Section 58
(B) Section 59
(C) Section 60
(D) Section 61
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 58 BNSS enforces the 24-hour rule.

✅ Q25.

Which section of BNSS defines “Proclaimed Offender”?
(A) 82
(B) 85
(C) 84
(D) 83
Answer: (B) 85
Explanation: Section 85 BNSS defines a proclaimed offender.