AIBE 19 2024(Part 2): Full Solved Question Paper (Q26

AIBE 19 2024(Part 2)

✅ Q26–50: Complete Questions, Options, Answers & Explanations

AIBE 19 2024

Q26.

A confession made to a police officer under Section 173 of BNSS is—
(A) Inadmissible as evidence (B) Admissible if voluntary (C) Admissible only in part (D) Always conclusive
Answer: (A) Inadmissible as evidence
Explanation: Confessions before police officers remain inadmissible, continuing the principle of old CrPC Section 25 and the Evidence Act.

Q27.

Which section of BNSS allows trial in absentia of proclaimed offenders residing abroad?
(A) 356 (B) 339 (C) 353 (D) 350
Answer: (B) 339
Explanation: Section 339 BNSS 2023 enables courts to proceed with trials even when proclaimed offenders are outside India.

Q28.

In BNSS, provisions for summary trials are contained in—
(A) Chapter XX (B) Chapter XIX (C) Chapter XXI (D) Chapter XXII
Answer: (A) Chapter XX
Explanation: Chapter XX lays down a quicker procedure for minor offences.

Q29.

Which new technological measure is included under BNSS to record search and seizure proceedings?
(A) Body camera (B) Drone (C) Videography (D) CCTV
Answer: (C) Videography
Explanation: BNSS mandates video recording to ensure transparency in searches.

Q30.

Under BNSS, who can authorize interception of electronic communication?
(A) Superintendent of Police (B) Judicial Magistrate (C) District Judge (D) Commissioner of Police
Answer: (A) Superintendent of Police
Explanation: Section 420 empowers the SP to authorize interception as per rules.

Q31.

Which Article guarantees the Right to Education?
(A) 21 (B) 21A (C) 22 (D) 23
Answer: (B) Article 21A
Explanation: Article 21A provides free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14.

Q32.

Minimum Judges required for constitutional interpretation under Article 145(3)?
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9
Answer: (B) 5
Explanation: A Constitution Bench must consist of at least five judges.

Q33.

Under Article 226, the High Court can issue writs for—
(A) Fundamental rights only (B) Fundamental rights and any other purpose (C) Civil rights only (D) None
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 226 is broader than Article 32.

Q34.

Article dealing with protection of life and personal liberty?
(A) 19 (B) 21 (C) 20 (D) 22
Answer: (B) Article 21
Explanation: It guarantees life and liberty except by procedure established by law.

Q35.

Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
(A) President (B) PM (C) Cabinet Committee (D) Parliament
Answer: (A) President
Explanation: Article 124 gives this power to the President.

Q36.

Under Article 32, who may move the Supreme Court for enforcement of FRs?
(A) Citizens only (B) Any person (C) Only aggrieved party (D) Government
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Any person can file a writ petition for FR enforcement.

Q37.

The “Basic Structure Doctrine” originates from—
(A) Kesavananda Bharati (B) Golaknath (C) Minerva Mills (D) A.K. Gopalan
Answer: (A)
Explanation: In 1973, the SC held that Parliament’s amending power is limited by basic features.

Q38.

Who can amend the Constitution under Article 368?
(A) President (B) Parliament (C) SC (D) State Legislature
Answer: (B) Parliament.

Q39.

Article providing equal justice and free legal aid?
(A) 38 (B) 39A (C) 42 (D) 43
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A vital Directive Principle promoting access to justice.

Q40.

Article prohibiting discrimination on religion, race, caste, sex, or birthplace?
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 18
Answer: (A) Article 15

Q41.

Section constituting Bar Council of India?
(A) 4 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 4 forms the BCI.

Q42.

Disciplinary powers over advocates are exercised by—
(A) State Bar Councils (B) High Court (C) BCI (D) SC
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Sections 35 and 36 give SBCs this authority.

Q43.

Section on enrolment of advocates?
(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 28
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 24 lists eligibility to enroll.

Q44.

Removal for professional misconduct?
(A) 35 (B) 36 (C) 37 (D) 38
Answer: (A)

Q45.

Who frames rules on professional standards?
(A) BCI (B) SBC (C) SC (D) Law Ministry
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 49 empowers BCI.

Q46.

BCI recognition of universities?
(A) 7(1)(h) (B) 7(1)(i) (C) 7(1)(l) (D) 7(1)(g)
Answer: (B)

Q47.

BCI’s review power comes under—
(A) 48 (B) Amendment recommendation (C) Appointment of SBC members (D) Dismiss appeals
Answer: (A)

Q48.

Supreme Court’s power to regulate its practice?
(A) 145 (B) 141 (C) 142 (D) 143
Answer: (A)

Q49.

Who can punish an advocate for contempt?
(A) SC or HC (B) BCI (C) Law Commission (D) SBC
Answer: (A)

Q50.

AIBE is conducted under which rule?
(A) Rule 9 Part IV (B) Rule 11 Part IV (C) Rule 12 Part IV (D) Rule 13 Part IV
Answer: (B)

AIBE 19 2024

✅ Conclusion

Part 2 of the AIBE XIX 2024 question paper highlights how deeply the exam blends procedural law, constitutional safeguards, and professional ethics. By understanding the reasoning instead of memorizing bare answers, aspirants gain a stronger grip on the core logic the Bar Council expects every new advocate to know.

Stay tuned for Part 3 (Q51–75) and Part 4 (Q76–100) to complete your preparation.

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External Sources:

Official AIBE Examination Portal

Bar Council of India – Official Website

India Code – BNSS 2023, BSA 2023, CPC & All Updated Bare Acts

Government Legislative Department – Constitutional & Legal Resources

Latest Laws – Legal News, Bare Acts & Case Notes

LiveLaw – Supreme Court & High Court Judgments

Supreme Court Observer – Case Summaries & Analysis