AIBE 19 (2024)Part 3
Welcome to Part 3 of our AIBE 19 (2024) practice series.
Below are Questions 51 to 75, each with answers and clear explanations to help you prepare confidently.
✅ Part 3: AIBE XIX (2024) Question Paper – Part 3 (Q51–75)
Part 3 marches in with Constitutional guardrails, judicial doctrines, and a sprinkle of CPC essentials.
Q51–75 Highlights
✅ Minority protection
✅ Right to privacy landmark case
✅ Fundamental Duties
✅ Basic Structure, Doctrine of Eclipse, PIL origins
✅ CPC on stay of suits, partition decrees, appeals
✅ Articles on Lok Sabha dissolution, Governor removal, and Supreme Court foundation day
Solid, core law wrapped in 25 crisp pieces.
AIBE 19 (2024)Part 3
📄 Download PDF for Part 3 (Q51–75):
👉 https://networkbharat.com/aibe-xix-part3.pdf
✅ AIBE 19 (2024)Part 3 – Questions 51 to 75
Q51. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the protection of the interests of minorities?
(A) Article 29 (B) Article 30 (C) Article 31 (D) Article 32
Answer: (A) Article 29
Explanation: Article 29 safeguards the cultural and educational rights of minorities in India.
Q52. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the right to privacy is a part of Article 21?
(A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (B) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (C) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (D) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
Answer: (B) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
Explanation: The 2017 Puttaswamy judgment ruled that privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21.
Q53. Who appoints the Attorney General for India?
(A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Parliament (D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: (A) President
Explanation: As per Article 76, the President appoints the Attorney General for India.
Q54. Which Article empowers the President to promulgate ordinances?
(A) Article 121 (B) Article 122 (C) Article 123 (D) Article 124
Answer: (C) Article 123
Explanation: Article 123 empowers the President to issue ordinances when Parliament is not in session.
Q55. Which part of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties?
(A) Part III (B) Part IVA (C) Part V (D) Part VI
Answer: (B) Part IVA
Explanation: Part IVA (Article 51A) contains the Fundamental Duties.
Q56. Which case established that Parliament cannot destroy the basic structure of the Constitution?
(A) Golaknath Case (B) Minerva Mills Case (C) Kesavananda Bharati Case (D) Maneka Gandhi Case
Answer: (C) Kesavananda Bharati Case
Explanation: The 1973 judgment established the Basic Structure Doctrine.
Q57. Which Article guarantees freedom of speech and expression?
(A) Article 19(1)(a) (B) Article 19(2) (C) Article 21 (D) Article 22
Answer: (A) Article 19(1)(a)
Explanation: This clause protects the fundamental right to freedom of speech.
Q58. The Directive Principles of State Policy are—
(A) Justiciable (B) Non-justiciable (C) Fundamental rights (D) Enforceable rights
Answer: (B) Non-justiciable
Explanation: DPSPs are not enforceable in courts but guide governance.
Q59. In which case was the “Doctrine of Eclipse” discussed?
(A) Bhikaji Narain v. State of M.P. (B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (D) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
Answer: (A) Bhikaji Narain v. State of M.P.
Explanation: The doctrine was applied regarding laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights.
Q60. The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in which decade?
(A) 1950s (B) 1970s (C) 1960s (D) 1980s
Answer: (B) 1970s
Explanation: PIL evolved through judicial activism led by Justices P.N. Bhagwati and V.R. Krishna Iyer.
Q61. Under CPC, execution of decrees is governed by which part?
(A) Order XXI (B) Order XXII (C) Order XXIII (D) Order XXIV
Answer: (A) Order XXI
Explanation: Order XXI deals extensively with execution procedures.
Q62. A temporary injunction may be granted under which Order of CPC?
(A) Order 37 (B) Order 38 (C) Order 39 (D) Order 40
Answer: (C) Order 39
Explanation: Order 39 covers temporary injunctions and interlocutory orders.
Q63. Which section of CPC deals with appeals from appellate decrees?
(A) Section 100 (B) Section 96 (C) Section 104 (D) Section 108
Answer: (A) Section 100
Explanation: Section 100 provides for second appeals on substantial questions of law.
Q64. Under Section 151 of CPC, the inherent powers of the court can be exercised—
(A) When no specific remedy is provided (B) Always (C) Only with permission of High Court (D) Never
Answer: (A) When no specific remedy is provided
Explanation: Courts use inherent powers to ensure justice.
Q65. In a suit for partition, the decree is called—
(A) Final decree (B) Preliminary decree (C) Declaratory decree (D) Consent decree
Answer: (B) Preliminary decree
Explanation: First, shares are declared in a preliminary decree.
Q66. Which section of CPC provides for stay of suit?
(A) Section 10 (B) Section 9 (C) Section 11 (D) Section 13
Answer: (A) Section 10
Explanation: Section 10 deals with Res Sub Judice.
Q67. Res sub judice applies when—
(A) Same parties and same cause of action (B) Different subject matter (C) Judgment already passed (D) Execution pending
Answer: (A) Same parties and same cause of action
Explanation: It prevents parallel proceedings.
Q68. Which section provides that no court shall try any suit barred by law?
(A) Section 9 (B) Section 10 (C) Section 11 (D) Section 12
Answer: (A) Section 9
Explanation: Civil courts cannot try suits expressly or impliedly barred.
Q69. An appeal from a decree passed by a District Judge lies to—
(A) High Court (B) Supreme Court (C) Sub Judge (D) None
Answer: (A) High Court
Explanation: Section 96 CPC governs first appeals.
Q70. Which section of CPC allows transfer of decrees for execution to another court?
(A) Section 36 (B) Section 38 (C) Section 40 (D) Section 42
Answer: (B) Section 38
Explanation: A decree may be executed by the court that passed it or one to which it is sent.
Q71. Who has the power to appoint the Attorney General of a State?
(A) Governor (B) Chief Minister (C) President (D) Chief Justice of High Court
Answer: (A) Governor
Explanation: Article 165 empowers the Governor to appoint the Advocate General.
Q72. In which case was the term “Procedure established by law” interpreted widely?
(A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (B) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (D) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
Answer: (A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Explanation: The judgment expanded Article 21 to require fairness, justice, and reasonableness.
Q73. Who is the guardian of Fundamental Rights in India?
(A) Parliament (B) President (C) Supreme Court (D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C) Supreme Court
Explanation: Under Article 32, the Supreme Court protects Fundamental Rights.
Q74. Which amendment inserted the words “Socialist and Secular” in the Preamble?
(A) 42nd Amendment (B) 44th Amendment (C) 52nd Amendment (D) 73rd Amendment
Answer: (A) 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 1976 amendment modified the Preamble during the Emergency.
Q75. The term “Union of India” is used in which Article?
(A) Article 1 (B) Article 2 (C) Article 3 (D) Article 4
Answer: (A) Article 1
Explanation: Article 1 states that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
AIBE 19 (2024)Part 3
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Disclaimer
Network Bharat is not responsible for the accuracy of the questions.
These questions have been compiled from various online resources for educational purposes.
Sources :
Official AIBE Website (BCI) Bar Council of India — Official Portal India Code — Bare Acts & Rules (Official) Constitution of India — Official Text e-Gazette of India — Notifications Supreme Court of India — Judgments Indian Kanoon — Case Law Search Bare Acts Library — CPC, BNSS, BSA PRS Legislative Research — Bill Summaries NALSA — Legal Aid & ResourcesAlso Read This :
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